UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2018 | Analysis, Answer Key,Expected Cut off
UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2018 | Analysis, Answer Key,Expected Cut off

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2018 | Analysis, Answer Key, Expected and Cut off

The Civil Services Preliminary Examination is now over and now is the time to analyse the paper and understand how to tackle this exam next year. Hence, this post is relevant for those who appeared for the exam as well as for those who plan to appear next year. This post is divided into three parts:

  1. Analysis of UPSC Prelims, 2018
  2. Expected Cut-Off
  3. Answer Key

ANALYSIS OF UPSC PRELIMS, 2018

UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2018 | Analysis, Answer Key,Expected Cut off
UPSC Civil Services Prelims 2018 | Analysis, Answer Key,Expected Cut off

UPSC has once again stunned candidates with an unexpected shift from last year’s pattern. One could say that ‘Changing trends is the NEW TREND’ for UPSC. This year’s GS Paper-1 was once again unpredictable as it was last year. This year we saw a shift from Current Affairs towards Static Syllabus Questions similar to last year but unlike 2016 where the major chunk of questions was from Current Affairs. The Paper was a bit difficult than last year and the questions were more analytical this time. The Options were a bit misleading and trapped the candidates in marking the wrong answer. The weightage is as follows:

Name of Section Number of Questions
Geography 12
Polity 14
History, Art & Culture 19
Economy 17
Environment & Ecology 14
Others (International Organisations, Science & Technology, Current Affairs etc) 24
Total 100

 

So for those who are searching for a short-cut that could sail them through in next year’s Prelims, you must understand that there is none. The easiest way to crack this exam is to stick to the basics and read from genuine and authentic sources, cover up essential sections of the syllabus and believe in your subconscious mind; as you’ll find a lot of questions and concepts asked in the paper which you must have read but not revised. This happens because the syllabus is vast and extremely broad. Some say that ‘Everything under the Sun falls in the Civil Services Syllabus’. It is true to some extent. But can you read and remember about everything that is there under the sun? This is where a good Strategy rolls in.

After looking at this year’s paper, one thing is for sure that the most productive strategy would be to read the important and most productive topics first such as topics from Environment, Polity, Geography (Mapping), Modern History, Economics, Government Schemes & Programmes, International Organisations & Current Affairs. Revise these subjects again and again. Remember that you have to acquire knowledge as if you are increasing your IQ for your own personal development. Don’t mug up anything. Try to analyze, understand and interlink these subjects to the happenings in the world around you. That is when your sub-conscious mind develops and helps you in the exam.

 

Now comes the most interesting discussion for Aspirants at this stage of time. What would be the Cut-off for Civil Services Prelims 2018 Examination?

EXPECTED CUT OFF

Ideally, you should not get into speculating Cut Offs as it would not help you anyhow. You have already written the Prelims exam and you cannot change it now. Also, if you are a sincere candidate, you should immediately start preparing for the Mains Examination. Even if for some reason you do not clear the Prelims exam (ALTHOUGH WE REALLY WANT YOU TO CLEAR THE EXAM), you would have covered up your Optional Subject and that would help you in the next attempt. But still, if you really want to know our take on the cut-off, here is what we think based on our analysis:

PRELIMS PAPER GENERAL OBC SC ST
GS PAPER-1 98 ± 3 93 ± 3 82 ± 3 80 ± 3
CSAT (Qualifying Only: 33%)

ANSWER KEY (GS 1)

We have tried to keep the Answer Key as accurate as possible. If you find any discrepancy, please report it to us asap. Also, send us your expected score based on the answer key.

Correct Answer is highlighted in Green Colour.

1. Consider the following statements:
1) In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2) In the first Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the opposition “ was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3) In the first Lok Sabha ,if the party does not have a minimum 75 members, its leaders can not be recognised as the Leaders of the Opposition.
Which of the statement given below is/ are correct?


2. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1) Hard and waxy leaves
2) Tiny leaves
3) Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:


3. As per the NSSO 70th Round “ Situation Assessment Survey of Technical Households” consider the following statements:
1) Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2) Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percentage belongs to OBCs.
3) In Kerala, a little over 60 percent agricultural households reported to have maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statement given below is/are correct?


4. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?
1) the NGT has been established by an Act and CPCB has been created by an executive order of the government.
2) the NGT provides environmental justice and helps reducing the burden of litigation in the High Courts whereas the CPCB promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells , aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statement given below is/are correct?


5. Consider the following statements:
1) The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India
2) The validity of law placed in Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?


6. Which of the following best describes the term “ Merchant Discount Rate” sometimes seen in news ?


7. Which is /are the consequence / consequences of becoming a member of the ‘Nuclear supplier Group’?

1) It will have access to the latest and most effective nuclear technologies.

2) It automatically becomes a member of “ The Treaty of non- proliferation of Nuclear weapons(NPT)”

Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?


8. With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non resident entities , which of the following statement is/are correct?

1) It is introduced as a part of Income Tax Act.

2) Non Resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “ Double Taxation Avoidance commission”

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


9. Consider the following Statements:

1) The Fiscal responsibility and the budget Management Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) Government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central government and 20% for the State Government.

2) The Central government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the State Governments.

3) As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for the state to take Central government’s consent for raising any loans if the former owes any liabilities to the latter.

Which of the given statement is/ are correct?


10. Consider the following statements:

1) The quality of imported edible oil is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.

2) the Government does not impose any custom duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


11. He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for sometime; and was elected to the Central Assembly. He was:


12. Consider the following Statements:

1) Aadhar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.

2) Once issued, Aadhar card can not be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?


13. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/ dried up in the recent past due to human activities ?

1) Aral Sea

2) Black Sea

3) Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


14. “ Rule of the law Index “ is released by which of the following?


15. Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?


16. Consider the following statements:

1) Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that the banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that bank incur if the account holder fail to repay any dues.

2) CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the following Statements given above is/are correct?


17. The identity platform ‘Aadhar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces(APIs)”. What does it imply?

1) It is integrated into an electronic device.

2) Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


18. Very recently, In which of the following countries having lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ ethnic conflicts?


19. Regarding Wood’s Dispatch, which of the following statements are true:

1) Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.

2) Establishment of universities was recommended.

3) English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


20. With the reference to Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?


21. Consider the following statements:
1)As per the right to education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
2)As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3)In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


22. Consider the following pairs:
Tradition – State
1. Chapchar Kut Festival – Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad – Manipur
3. Thang-Ta Dance – Sikim
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?


23. Consider the following statements :

1) The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.

2)The Food Safety and Standard Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?


24. The term “ two state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of


25. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1)The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.

2)The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.

3)Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘ take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?


26. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods(Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to


27. Consider the following statements :
1)In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2)Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3)Rajasthan has iron ore mines.


28. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1)BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with the UPI- enabled bank account.

2)While a chip pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


29. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?


30. International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to


31. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?


32. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements :

1)The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.

2)The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


33. In the Indian Context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘ Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?


34. Consider the following countries:
1) Australia
2) Canada
3) China
4) India
5) Japan
6) USA
Which of the above are among the ‘ free- trade partners’ of ASEAN ?


35. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1) GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015.

2)Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.3)India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


36. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?

1) Formation of India’s own internet companies like China did.

2) Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their last data centers within our national geographical boundaries.

3) Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centers.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


37. Consider the Following Pairs:
Towns sometimes Country mentioned in news1)Aleppo — Syria
2)Kirkuk — Yemen
3)Mosul –Palestine
4)Mazar-i-Sharif — Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?


38. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary power were given to the


39. Consider the following statements:

1)The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.

2)Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


40. Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?


41. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceeding shall be instituted Against the Governor of a state in any court during his terms of office.

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his terms of office.

Which of the statement given above is /are correct?


42. The well-known painting “Bani Thani “ belongs to the:


43. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?


44. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:
1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharya kirtnas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venketshwara.
Which of the statement is given above are correct?


45. Which of the following are regarded as the main feature of the “Rule of Law”?

1. Limitations of powers.

2. Equality before law.

3. People’s responsibility to the Government.

4. Liberty and Civil Rights.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


46. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money?


47. If a commodity is provided free to the public by Government, then


48. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development,if


49. Consider the following statements:Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.

2. Increasing the knowledge, skills level and capacities of the people of the country.

3. Accumulation of tangible wealth.4. Accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


50. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to


51. After the Santhal rising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial Government?

1. The territories called ‘Santhal Paraganas’ were created.

2. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a Non-Santhal.

Select the correct answer using a code given below:


52. Economically, one of the results of the British rule in India in the 19th century was the


53. If President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then


54. Consider the following pairs: Craft Heritage Of

1. Puthukkuli Shawls – Tamilnadu

2. Sujni embroidery – Maharashtra

3. Uppada Jamdani Saris- Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?


55. In which of the following area can GPS technology be used?

1. Mobile phones operation.

2. Banking operations.

3. Controlling the power grids

Select the correct answer using the code given below:


56. Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.

2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.

3. Treasury bills offers are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


57. Consider the following statements:
1. The Earth’s magnetic fields has reserved every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organism originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


58. The terms “WannaCry, Petya and Eternal Blue” sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to


59. With references to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices.
2. Adopting minimum tillage.
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops.
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface.
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:


60. The term “sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction” is often mentioned in the news in the context of discussion of


61. With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) , consider the following statements :
1) IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2) Geosynchronous covers entire India and about 5500 sq. Km beyond its border.
3) India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?


62. Consider the following phenomenon:
1) Light is affected by gravity.
2) The universe is constantly expanding.
3) Matter wraps its surrounding space-time.
Which of the above is/are prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory Of Relativity, often discussed in media?


63. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM Mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

1) GM Mustard has the genes of the soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2) GM Mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3) GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


64. Consider the following pairs:
Terms sometimes seen in news – Context/Topic
1) Belle II – Artificial Intelligence experiment
2) Blockchain – Digital/ Technology Cryptocurrency
3) CRISPR – Cas9 – Particle Physics
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?


65. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?


66. When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day’s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places and order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly.In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario?


67. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements :
1) India is largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units
2) The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?


68. The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were


69. Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha?


70. Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948?


71. With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to:


72. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1) White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2) Red Sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza in Lucknow.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct ?


73. Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about Diamonds and diamond mines in India?


74. With reference to the Indian History, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world?


75. Which of the following statements do not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley ?


76. Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India ?
1) Charter Act of 1813
2) General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3) Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:


77. Which of the following is an Artificial Lake ?


78. With the reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements :

1) It is flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.<
2) It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and Digital Literacy.
3) It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


79. In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?


80. Which among the following events happened earliest?


81. Which of the is/are the possible consequences of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1) Decreased salinity in the water.
2) Pollution of groundwater
3) Lowering of the water label.
Select the correct answer using the code below:


82. With reference to agriculture soils consider the following statements:

1) A high content of organic matter drastically reduces its water boiling capacity.
2) Soil does not play role in the sulphur cycle.
3) Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


83. The Partnership for Action Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at


84. “3D Printing” has applications in which of the following?
1) Preparation of confectionery items
2) Manufacture of bionic cars
3) Automotive industry
4) Data processing technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given below;


85. Consider the following statements;
1) The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2) Barren Island lies about 14o kms cast of Great Nicobar.
3) The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.
Which of the statement given below is/are correct?


86. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news?


87. Consider the following statements:
1) Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2) More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines.
3) Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyls than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


88. “Momentum for Change : Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by


89. With the reference to educational institutions during rule in India, consider the following pairs:Institution Founder

1. Sanskrit College : William Jonesat Banaras

2. Calcutta Madras : Warren Hastings

3. Fort William Arthur : Wellesley College

Which of the pairs given below is/are correct?


90. Consider the following pairs: Regions sometimes Country mentioned in news
1. Catalonia Spain
2. Crimea Hungary
3. Mindanao Philippines
4. Oromia Nigeria
Which of the pairs given below above are correctly matched?


91. Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.

2. India’s then largest bank,”Imperial Bank of India” was renamed “State Bank of India” .

3. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier.

4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?


92. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty.

Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statements?


93. Consider the following:
1) Area nut
2) Barley
3) Coffee
4) Finger millet
5) Groundnut
6) Sesamum
7) Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?


94. In which of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?


95. With the reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
1) PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2) Satellites launched by PSLVs appear to remain permanently fixed in the first same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3) GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?


96. With the references to the governance of the public sector banking in India, considering the following statements:
1) Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2) To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate Banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?


97. Consider the following items:
1) Cereal grains hulled
2) Chicken eggs cooked
3) Fish processed and canned
4) Newspaper containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?


98. Consider of the following statements:
1) The Definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights, 2006.
2) For the first time in India, Baigas have been Habitat Rights.
3) Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitives and Vulnerable Tribal Groups is any part of India.
Which of the statements given below is/are correct?


99. Consider the following:
1) Birds
2) Dust blowing
3) Rain
4) Wind blowing
Which of the above plant diseases:


100. With references to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
1) “The National Programme for Organic Production”(NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry Of the Rural Development.
2) “The Agricultural and Processed and Products Export Development Authority”(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3) Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.Which of the following given above is/are correct?
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